Notes on:
Financial Intermediation and Credit Policy in Business Cycle Analysis
Handbook of Monetary Economics, vol. 3
2010
financial frictions
doi
- 1 What?
- 2 Why?
- 3 How?
- 3.1 Firms
- 3.2 Households
- 3.3 Banks
- 3.4 Evolution of Bank networths
- 3.5 Equilibrium
- 4 And?
1 What?
Study three credit policies:
- Liquidity facilities: Permitting discount window lending to banks secured by private credits
- Lending facilities: lend directly in relatively high grade credits markets (including commercial paper, agency debt and mortgage-backed securities)
- Equity injections: Direct assistance to large financial institutions (equity injections and debt guarantees)
2 Why?
2008 Financial crisis. Sorta important.
3 How?
3.1 Firms
Cobb-Douglas production function \( Y_{t} = A_{t} K_{t}^{\alpha} L_{t}^{1-\alpha} \), where \( A \) follows a Markov process.
Idiosyncratic risk with investment oppotunity: \( \pi^{i} = 1 - \pi^{n} \).
Law of motion for capital:
\begin{align*} K_{t+1} &= \psi_{t+1} [I_{t} + \pi^{i}(1 - \delta)K_{t}] + \psi_{t+1}\pi^{n}(1 - \delta)K_{t} \\ &= \psi_{t+1} [I_{t} + (1 - \delta) K_{t}] \end{align*}
where \( \psi_{t+1} \) is the capital quality shock (cheap exogeneous shock to capital quality, see Merton 1973 ecma).
Output allocation: \[ Y_{t} = C_{t} + G_{t} + \left[1 + f \left(\frac{I_{t}}{I_{t-1}} \right) \right]I_{t} \] where \( f\left( \frac{I_{t}}{I_{t-1}} \right)I_{t} \) is the physical adjustment costs. This create an inertia, preventing for investment to response instantly to any shocks. Gleaned from the literature, the inclusion of this condition most likely stems from a macroeconomic need to match data, rather than microeconomic evidence.
3.1.1 Non-financial and financial firms
3.2 Households
Preferences \[ \mathbb{E} \sum\limits_{i=0}^{\infty} \beta^{i} \left[ \log(C_{t+i} - \gamma C_{t + i - 1}) - \frac{\chi}{1 + \varepsilon} L^{1 + \varepsilon}_{1 - i} \right] \]
- Uses habut instead of other nk frictions cuz it’s
cheaptractable and doesn’t matter
Type: \( 1 - f \) “workers” and \( f \) “bankers”. Bankers dies with probability \( (1 - \sigma) \) and are replaced by new workers, so the sum remains unchanged.
Flow of funds constraints: \[ C_{t} = W_{t} L_{t} + \Pi_{t} - T_{t} + R_{t} D_{ht} - D_{h t - 1} \]
FoCs:
\begin{align*} L_{t} &:\qquad \mathbb{E} u_{c_{t}} W_{t} = \chi L_{t}^{\varepsilon} \\ C_{t} &:\qquad \mathbb{E} \Lambda_{t,t+1} R_{t+1} = 1 \end{align*}
where \( u_{c_{t}} \equiv (C_{t} - \gamma C_{t-1})^{-1} - \beta \gamma (C_{t+1} - C_{t})^{-1} \), \( \lambda_{t,t+1} \equiv \beta \frac{u_{c_{t+1}}}{u_{c_{t}}} \).
3.3 Banks
Flow of funds: \[ Q_{t} s_{t}^{h} = n_{t}^{h} + b_{t}^{h} + d_{t} \]
where networth is defined as \[ n_{t}^{h} = \left[ Z_{t} + (1 - \delta)Q_{t}^{h} \right]\psi_{t} s_{t-1} - R_{bt}b_{t-1} - R_{t} d_{t-1} \]
Objective: expected present value of future dividends \[ V_{t} = \mathbb{E} \sum\limits_{i = 1}^{\infty} (1 - \sigma)\sigma^{i - 1} \Lambda_{t, t+i} n_{t+i}^h \] However, there an agency problem: After raising funds, bankers can transfer \( \theta \) of “divertable” assets (\( Q_{t}^{h}s_{t}^{h} - \omega b_{t}^{h} \)) to their family. Creditors reclaim \( 1 - \theta \) of funds.
- \( \omega = 1 \): interbank market operates frictionlessly
- \( \omega = 0 \): interbank is simlar to the deposit market
Incentive constraints \[ V_{t}(s_{t-1}, b_{t-1}, d_{t-1}) \geq \theta(Q_{t}^{h}, s_{t}^{h} - \omega b_{t}^{h}) \] The value of bank at the end of period \( t-1 \) solves the Bellman equation:
\begin{multline*} V_{t-1}(s_{t-1}, b_{t-1}, d_{t-1}) = \\ \mathbb{E}_{t-1} \Lambda_{t-1,t} \sum\limits_{h=i,n} \pi^{h} \left\{ (1 - \sigma)n_{t}^{h} + \sigma \max_{d_{t}} \left[ \max_{s_{t}^{h}, b_{t}^{h}} V_{t} \left( s_{t}^{h}, b_{t}^{h}, d_{t} \right) \right] \right\} \end{multline*}
Guess and verify: \[ V_{t}(s_{t}^{h}, b_{t}^{h}m d_{t}) = \nu_{st}s_{t}^{h} - \nu_{bt}b_{t}^{h} - \nu_{t}d_{t} \]
Let \( \lambda_{t}^h \) be the Lagrangian multiplier for the incentive constraint faced by bank of type \( h \) and let \( \overline{\lambda}_{t} \equiv \sum\limits_{h=i,n}\pi^{h}\lambda_{t}^{h} \) be the average of this multiplier across states. With the conjectures we have the focs for \( d_{t}, s_{t}^h \) and \( \lambda_{t}^{h} \):
\begin{align*} d_{t} &:\qquad (\nu_{bt} - \nu_{t})(1 + \overline{\lambda}_{t}) = \theta\omega \overline{\lambda}_{t} \\ s_{t}^{h} &:\qquad \left( \frac{\nu_{st}}{Q_{t}^{h}} - \nu_{bt} \right) \left( 1 + \lambda_{t}^h \right) = \lambda_{t}^{h}\theta(1-\omega) \\ \lambda_{t}^{h} &:\qquad \left[ \theta - \left( \frac{\nu_{st}}{Q_{t}^{h}} - \nu_{t} \right) \right]Q_{t}^{h}s_{t}^{h} - [\theta\omega - (\nu_{bt} - \nu_{t})] b_{t}^{h} \leq \nu_{t} n_{t}^{h} \end{align*}
- We can only have \( \nu_{bt} > \nu_{t} \) if:
- \( \overline{\lambda}_{t} > 0 \) i.e. the incentive constrant is bind for some state and
- \( \omega > 0 \) i.e. inter-bank operates more efficiently than retail deposit market.
- The marginal value of asses in terms of goods \( \frac{\nu_{st}}{Q_{t}^{h}} \) exceeds the marginal cost of interbank \( v_{bt} \) if \( \lambda_{t}^{h} > 0 \) (incentive constraints binding) and \( \omega < 1 \)(there exists frictions)
3.4 Evolution of Bank networths
Total net workth for type \( h \) banks equal the sum of networth for existing bankers and entering bankers \[ N_{t}^{h} = N_{ot}^{h} + N_{yt}^{h} \] where
\begin{align*} N_{ot}^{h} &= \sigma \pi^{h} \left\{ \left[ Z_{t} + (1 - \delta)Q_{t}^{h} \right]\psi_{t} S_{t-1} - R_{t} D_{t-1} \right\} \\ N_{yt}^{h} &= \xi\pi^{h}\left[ Z_{t} + (1 - \delta)Q_{t}^{h} \right]\psi_{t} S_{t-1} \end{align*}
The aggregated balance sheet is written as: \[ D_{t} = \sum\limits_{h = i,n} \left( Q_{t}^{h}S_{t}^{h} - N_{t}^{h} \right) \]
3.5 Equilibrium
4 And?
4.1 Economy under different assumption on \( \omega \)
4.1.1 Special case: Frictionless wholesale market \( \omega = 1 \)
The incentive constraints for bankers in this case is just \[ Q_{t} s_{t} - b_{t} = \phi_{t} n_{t} \,, \] where
- \( \phi_{t} = \frac{\nu_{t}}{\theta - \mu_{t}} \) is the leverage ratio net of interbank borrowing
- \( \mu_{t} \equiv \frac{\nu_{st}}{Q_{t}} - \nu_{t} > 0 \) represents the excess value of bank assets
4.1.2 Special case: Symmetric friction between wholesale and retail market \( \omega = 0 \)
The FoC for \( d_{t} \) implies the marginal costs of interbank equals to the marginal costs of deposits \[ \nu_{bt} = \nu_{t} \]
4.1.3 General case: \( 0 < \omega < 1 \)
- The interbank rate is lower than that of the deposit rate, higher than the return on loans. Intuitively, because a dollar interabank credit tighten the incentive constraint by less than a dollar of deposit.
- Because lending banks are not able to perfectly recover asset \( \omega < 1 \), there is still imperfect arbitrage which keeps the expected discounted interbank rate below the expected discount rate of return to loans.